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Could someone please explain to me how a husband cheating on his wife while she is pregnant, continuing with the affair, and a year and a half later, plotting the whole time, springing a divore on her in the attempt to drive her crazy so he and his new now fiancee, can possibly be considered "no fault. This is sick and boarderline criminal, but no fault?
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it might be "no fault" in the divorce, but in some states you can sue her for malic and intentional emotion distress, you can also talk to the lawyer about his being responsible in this. Also, depending on what actions each of you have taken, you might be able to consider "her" as a assult on your marriage. Marriages are contracts, written and verbal agreements to a code of conduct between two people. Breaking that contract should come with concequences!
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