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I have been given conflicting opinions concerning the topic of contesting divorce. I have researched it over and over and do not see why a person can't. If adultery has not been committed, then you can contest it. Isn't it the same with the other grounds of divorce as well? I have been told that the Tex. no-fault ground for divorce means that the petitioner doesn't have to prove insupportability but I have found sever cases that says that it does have to be proven. Why do the attorneys that I have talked to say that this isn't so?
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