Yes it can. But the first thing to consider would be to look at the pre-marital agreement and you'd have to establish the fact that there was an actual valid pre-marital agreement entered into by the parties. Then yes, that would override the rules of property division because it's a separate contract that those specific parties lays out how the property is divided or not divided.
Sean Sullivan is a family lawyer practicing in the Elmhurst, Illinois area at the law offices of Laura M Urbik Kern, specializing in child custody and dissolution in divorce. Visit his website, www.laurakern.com, and Divorce Magazine profile.